Question
Both [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ and [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ contain Fe²⁺ as the central metal ion. Yet [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ is diamagnetic and [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is paramagnetic. Explain this difference using Crystal Field Theory.
Solution — Step by Step
In both complexes, iron is in the +2 oxidation state. Iron (atomic number 26) has the electronic configuration [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s².
Fe²⁺ loses 2 electrons (from 4s first): configuration becomes [Ar] 3d⁶.
So in both complexes, Fe²⁺ has 6 d-electrons to distribute among the d-orbitals.
When 6 ligands approach the central metal in an octahedral arrangement, the 5 d-orbitals split into two sets:
- t₂g (lower energy): , , — 3 orbitals
- e_g (higher energy): , — 2 orbitals
The energy gap between these sets is called the crystal field splitting energy, Δ_o.
Whether electrons pair up in t₂g orbitals or occupy the higher e_g orbitals depends on the relative magnitudes of Δ_o (crystal field splitting) vs P (pairing energy).
This is the key step. Ligands are classified by the spectrochemical series based on how large a Δ_o they produce:
CN⁻ is a strong field ligand — it produces a very large Δ_o, so Δ_o > P. H₂O is a weak field ligand — it produces a small Δ_o, so Δ_o < P.
With CN⁻ (strong field), Δ_o > P. Electrons prefer to pair in the lower t₂g orbitals rather than jump to e_g.
Filling 6 electrons into t₂g with maximum pairing:
- t₂g: ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ (all 6 electrons paired)
- e_g: empty
Configuration: t₂g⁶ e_g⁰
Number of unpaired electrons = 0 → Diamagnetic ✓
With H₂O (weak field), Δ_o < P. Electrons prefer to spread out (Hund’s rule takes precedence — it costs less energy to occupy e_g than to pair in t₂g).
Filling 6 electrons following Hund’s rule:
- t₂g: ↑↓ ↑ ↑ (4 electrons, one pair + two singles)
- e_g: ↑ ↑ (2 electrons, both unpaired)
Configuration: t₂g⁴ e_g²
Number of unpaired electrons = 4 → Paramagnetic ✓
The magnetic moment: BM BM
Why This Works
Magnetism in transition metal complexes is purely a consequence of electron pairing. Diamagnetic means all electrons are paired (no net magnetic moment — the substance is weakly repelled by magnetic fields). Paramagnetic means unpaired electrons exist (each unpaired electron has a magnetic moment — the substance is attracted to magnetic fields).
The ligand’s field strength determines the d-orbital electron distribution. Strong field ligands force pairing (low-spin configuration); weak field ligands allow spreading (high-spin configuration). The same metal ion (Fe²⁺) can be either diamagnetic or paramagnetic depending entirely on which ligands are attached.
Alternative Method — VBT Perspective
Valence Bond Theory reaches the same conclusion differently:
In [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻: CN⁻ forces all 6 d-electrons into 3 inner d-orbitals (t₂g), freeing up two d-orbitals for sp³d² hybridisation using inner d-orbitals — d²sp³ (inner orbital complex). All electrons paired → diamagnetic.
In [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺: H₂O cannot force pairing. Hybridisation uses outer d-orbitals — sp³d² (outer orbital complex). Electrons remain unpaired → paramagnetic.
CFT is more modern and accurate; VBT is used if the question specifically asks about hybridisation.
Common Mistake
The most common error is forgetting that both complexes have the same metal ion (Fe²⁺) with the same 3d⁶ configuration — the difference is entirely due to the ligand. Students sometimes check oxidation states and assume a different d-electron count. Also, do not confuse “diamagnetic = no magnetism at all” — diamagnetic substances do respond to magnetic fields, just very weakly and in the opposite direction. The statement “diamagnetic = no unpaired electrons” is what matters for these questions.
This is a classic JEE Main and NEET question type. Always: (1) find oxidation state → d-electron count, (2) identify ligand field strength from spectrochemical series, (3) draw the t₂g/e_g filling, (4) count unpaired electrons. Four steps, full marks. The spectrochemical series to memorise: I⁻ < Br⁻ < Cl⁻ < F⁻ < OH⁻ < H₂O < NH₃ < en < CN⁻ < CO.