A Simple Pendulum Has Period 2s — What is its Length? (g = 10)

easy CBSE JEE-MAIN NCERT Class 11 Chapter 14 3 min read

Question

A simple pendulum has a time period of 2 seconds. Find its length. (Take g = 10 m/s²)


Solution — Step by Step

The time period of a simple pendulum is:

T=2πLgT = 2\pi\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}

Here, TT is the time period, LL is the length of the pendulum, and gg is acceleration due to gravity.

We need LL, so rearrange. Square both sides:

T2=4π2LgT^2 = 4\pi^2 \cdot \frac{L}{g}

Now multiply both sides by gg and divide by 4π24\pi^2:

L=gT24π2L = \frac{g T^2}{4\pi^2}

Plug in T=2T = 2 s and g=10g = 10 m/s²:

L=10×(2)24π2=10×44π2=404π2=10π2L = \frac{10 \times (2)^2}{4\pi^2} = \frac{10 \times 4}{4\pi^2} = \frac{40}{4\pi^2} = \frac{10}{\pi^2}

We know π29.87\pi^2 \approx 9.87, so:

L=109.871.01 m1 mL = \frac{10}{9.87} \approx 1.01 \text{ m} \approx \mathbf{1 \text{ m}}

The length of the pendulum is approximately 1 metre.


Why This Works

The formula T=2πL/gT = 2\pi\sqrt{L/g} comes from the SHM analysis of a pendulum. When a pendulum is displaced by a small angle, the restoring force is mgsinθmgθmg\sin\theta \approx mg\theta (for small θ\theta). This gives simple harmonic motion with angular frequency ω=g/L\omega = \sqrt{g/L}, and since T=2π/ωT = 2\pi/\omega, we get the formula directly.

The key physical insight: a longer pendulum swings slower (larger LL → larger TT), and a stronger gravitational field speeds it up (larger gg → smaller TT). A 1 m pendulum taking exactly 2 seconds to complete one oscillation is actually the definition of the “seconds pendulum” — a concept that comes up in PYQs quite often.

Notice that mass does not appear anywhere in the formula. This is not a coincidence — heavier bobs don’t swing faster. Galileo’s observation about pendulums is baked right into the math.


Alternative Method

If you remember that a seconds pendulum (T = 2 s) has length approximately 1 m on Earth, you can directly state the answer in MCQs without calculation. This is a high-value shortcut for JEE Main.

We can also verify using dimensional analysis. The only combination of gg (m/s²) and TT (s) that gives length (m) is:

LgT2L \sim g T^2

Up to the constant 4π239.54\pi^2 \approx 39.5, the answer is L=10×439.51L = \frac{10 \times 4}{39.5} \approx 1 m. Dimensional reasoning confirms we haven’t made a structural error.


Common Mistake

Forgetting to square T before substituting. A very common slip is writing L=gT/2πL = gT / 2\pi instead of L=gT2/4π2L = gT^2 / 4\pi^2. This happens when students try to “shortcut” the rearrangement step. Always square the entire equation first, then isolate LL — do not try to take shortcuts with square roots algebraically.

Another trap: using π3\pi \approx 3 instead of π29.87\pi^2 \approx 9.87. When the question gives g=10g = 10 m/s² and T=2T = 2 s, the numbers are chosen to give a clean answer of ~1 m — but only if you use π210\pi^2 \approx 10 as an approximation (which gives exactly L=1L = 1 m). Many CBSE board marking schemes accept this approximation. JEE questions will usually specify whether to use π2=10\pi^2 = 10 or the exact value, so read carefully.

Want to master this topic?

Read the complete guide with more examples and exam tips.

Go to full topic guide →

Try These Next